I keep seeing comments like "Faurlin has NEVER been ineligable" or "We've not gained any advantage on the pitch". Apologies if I missed something before, BUT -
Have the FA officially stated this ? ie. That Faurlin has ALWAYS been eligible, whether it be this season, last season, or when ever.
Or are we just assuming that to be the case, based on the suggestion that FL didn't have any 3rd party ownership rules until Sept/Oct last year.
Or is it based on an unofficial comment from within the Club or via Local Press ?
I'm not knocking anyone here, I'm just hoping I missed an official comment or at least something more concrete.
Have the FA officially stated this ? ie. That Faurlin has ALWAYS been eligible, whether it be this season, last season, or when ever.
Or are we just assuming that to be the case, based on the suggestion that FL didn't have any 3rd party ownership rules until Sept/Oct last year.
Or is it based on an unofficial comment from within the Club or via Local Press ?
I'm not knocking anyone here, I'm just hoping I missed an official comment or at least something more concrete.
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